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#1 |
![]() Join Date: Nov 2010
Posts: 36
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![]() Hello folks,
Although 0! = 1 can anyone explain why this is the case. Hopefully, in a simple way so that I can understand why this is the case. Also why does anything to the power of zero = 1 eg 10^0 = 1 and 9^0 = 1. Finally, we all act as though we understand infinity even though none of us really know what it is. Can anyone explain? Kind regards Lisa Smith ![]() |
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#2 | |
![]() ![]() ![]() Join Date: Dec 2008
Posts: 249
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![]() Quote:
By definition n! = n x (n - 1) x (n - 2) x (n - 3) x ... x 2 x 1, or you can say: n! = n x (n - 1)! Dividing both sides by n gives: n!/n = (n - 1)! Now lets try some numbers: Let n = 2. 2!/2 = (2 - 1)! (2 x 1)/2 = 1! 2/2 = 1! 1 = 1! Let n = 1. 1!/1 = (1 - 1)! 1/1 = 0! 1 = 0! 2. Power of Zero 1 = 2/2 1 = 2^1 / 2^1 When dividing the same "base" number with exponents, we subtract the exponents. In this example our base number is 2. So, 1 = 2^(1 - 1) 1 = 2^0 3. Infinity Infinity is a fascinating subject. In fact some infinities are bigger than others. A wonderful book about infinity and one mathematician's (Georg Cantor) obsession with it is "The Mystery of the Aleph: Mathematics, the Kabbalah, and the Search for Infinity". It can be found on Amazon.com at http://www.amazon.com/Mystery-Aleph-...1674569&sr=1-2 MAS1 |
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#3 | |
![]() Join Date: Nov 2010
Posts: 36
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![]() Quote:
Thanks again for your post! Lisa Smith ![]() |
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